Guest JayW Posted August 8, 2011 at 09:49 PM Report Share Posted August 8, 2011 at 09:49 PM In an organization whose Bylaws state "The government and management of the Club shall be vested in the Board of Directors", and which specifies only that a vote of the membership is required to amend three specific documents (including the Bylaws), does the membership have any rights at all aside from those three documents? Members are entitled to cast one vote on issues brought up at a membership meeting or by mail, but -- other than the three documents -- what compels the Board to abide by what the membership voted? (This is a group that effectively only has one membership meeting per year; a second meeting is called but rarely makes quorum.)Perhaps this is a Bylaws issue and probably it's rhetorical. If so, I apologize for taking up space in the forum but appreciate the chance to blow off a little steam. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jstackpo Posted August 8, 2011 at 11:00 PM Report Share Posted August 8, 2011 at 11:00 PM Although we aren't in the bylaws interpretation business here, I would go along with those who would say that the Board runs the entire show. However, the members can reverse that by appropriately amending the bylaws; hardly a "powerless" position to be in. Just takes a bit of work. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest JayW Posted August 9, 2011 at 01:57 AM Report Share Posted August 9, 2011 at 01:57 AM Thanks for the input. Changing the Bylaws will be tough, especially since the parent organization recommends that exact wording for the powers of the Board, but it will probably be easier than changing the Board! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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