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Board changing a voted on amount without another vote


Guest Jessica

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Our association recently voted to up our dues but with the extra expense we where told we would revive 150.00 a year for training as well as a uniform allowance. Without a re vote the board decided to change the amount to 100.00 a year and our uniform allowance would come out of that. Are they allowed to make this change without a re vote. Also I already received a check for 150 from them for schooling and they said I could only take 50 next year because they changed the amount

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I, and others here, really can't answer your question(s) -- it all depends on how much power to run things, spend money, revise the budget, adopt the budget, &c., your bylaws hand to the board, as opposed to the general membership doing all this stuff.

So... read the bylaws, and you may get answers.

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I, and others here, really can't answer your question(s) -- it all depends on how much power to run things, spend money, revise the budget, adopt the budget, &c., your bylaws hand to the board, as opposed to the general membership doing all this stuff.

So... read the bylaws, and you may get answers.

But, working off the bare facts alone that we have so far, it seems as though the Board has taken action counter to the membership's decision. (RONR 11 p. 483 ll. 6-9)

Whether there was an actual vote, or this was handled by unanimous consent seems to be less of an issue, although it's hard to tell without additional facts. Regardless, it seems the board's action is null and void, however they arrived at it. The bylaws may indeed clarify, but as a starting point, the board seems to have overstepped.

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I, and others here, really can't answer your question(s) -- it all depends on how much power to run things, spend money, revise the budget, adopt the budget, &c., your bylaws hand to the board, as opposed to the general membership doing all this stuff.

So... read the bylaws, and you may get answers.

I would agree with Dr. Stackpole in this particular area; much depends on the degree of autonomy the members have delegated to the Board of Directors (through the bylaws) and what specific powers the membership assembly has reserved for themselves.

This particular question is not something that can be answered generically, without actually reviewing whether your bylaws overide or customize what is provided for in RONR/11.

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I would agree with Dr. Stackpole in this particular area; much depends on the degree of autonomy the members have delegated to the Board of Directors (through the bylaws) and what specific powers the membership assembly has reserved for themselves.

This particular question is not something that can be answered generically, without actually reviewing whether your bylaws overide or customize what is provided for in RONR/11.

Agreed, and yet, this can be said, and often is, about most questions posted here. For one example, the question of the unopposed slate being elected without a vote always includes in the answer "if your bylaws don't require a ballot vote" as part of the prerequisite for election by acclamation.

So, can we at least say to Guest_Jessica that if your bylaws don't give exclusive authority to the board over such matters as dues and expenses, then the board has in fact (in some manner) taken action in conflict with a decision of the membership's, as noted on p. 483? And then we'll leave it to her to research the bylaws, but at least with a hope that maybe - just maybe - she can reinstate the membership's decision.

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