Motions, but no meeting called to order

[Guest Matt]

Can motions be made by a governing body if it is a "workshop" and a meeting has not been called to order?

[Chris Harrison]

Well, if a properly called meeting is to be held and then business starts to be conducted it would be understood that the meeting had started whether it had been formally called to order or not. However, whether this "workshop" constitutes a properly called meeting is something you all need to figure out.

[David A Foulkes]

Can motions be made by a governing body if it is a "workshop" and a meeting has not been called to order?

If this wasn't a meeting, I don't see how. Unless your bylaws or other governing rules allow a quorum of members to find themselves gathered in the same place at the same time and decide on the spot to actually call a meeting without notice to any absent members, then I'd have to go with "no."

It is a fundamental principle of parliamentary law that "the right to vote is limited to the members... who are present at the time... in a regular or properly called meeting." (RONR 11th Ed., p. 263 ll. 18-22 emphasis added)