Sean Hunt Posted July 18, 2012 at 07:54 PM Report Share Posted July 18, 2012 at 07:54 PM Suppose that a candidate ineligible to hold an office (say, by virtue of holding another office when this is prohibited in the bylaws) is declared elected and subsequently becomes eligible to hold that office (such as by resigning from the other office).Is there still a continuing breach, or has it been healed by the candidate's new-found eligibility? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Edgar Posted July 18, 2012 at 08:05 PM Report Share Posted July 18, 2012 at 08:05 PM Is there still a continuing breach, or has it been healed by the candidate's new-found eligibility?Sounds healed to me.Barring any nuanced argument over whether the eligibility referred to being "nominated" or "elected" as opposed to "holding office".And I'm assuming no point of order was raised prior to his new-found eligibility. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Edgar Posted July 18, 2012 at 08:23 PM Report Share Posted July 18, 2012 at 08:23 PM Barring any nuanced argument over whether the eligibility referred to being "nominated" or "elected" as opposed to "holding office".Speaking of which, I just noticed that, although the topic refers to "election requirements", the question refers to requirements for "holding office". Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
J. J. Posted July 18, 2012 at 09:48 PM Report Share Posted July 18, 2012 at 09:48 PM Suppose that a candidate ineligible to hold an office (say, by virtue of holding another office when this is prohibited in the bylaws) is declared elected and subsequently becomes eligible to hold that office (such as by resigning from the other office).Is there still a continuing breach, or has it been healed by the candidate's new-found eligibility?I think that, based upon precedent in the US House, the breach would be healed, i.e. any point of order after that point should be ruled not well taken. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Sean Hunt Posted July 18, 2012 at 10:00 PM Author Report Share Posted July 18, 2012 at 10:00 PM Speaking of which, I just noticed that, although the topic refers to "election requirements", the question refers to requirements for "holding office".I wrote the text after the topic and realized that I needed to be more specific in the text and didn't correct the topic. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Josh Martin Posted July 18, 2012 at 10:36 PM Report Share Posted July 18, 2012 at 10:36 PM Suppose that a candidate ineligible to hold an office (say, by virtue of holding another office when this is prohibited in the bylaws) is declared elected and subsequently becomes eligible to hold that office (such as by resigning from the other office).Is there still a continuing breach, or has it been healed by the candidate's new-found eligibility?There are one or two previous threads on this subject which may be of assistance.As I understand it, the basic rule is that the breach is not "healed." If there is a period of time between the election and the time the member takes officer, however, then issues of Bylaws interpretation may come into play if the change in eligibility happened during that period. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
J. J. Posted July 18, 2012 at 10:58 PM Report Share Posted July 18, 2012 at 10:58 PM There are one or two previous threads on this subject which may be of assistance.As I understand it, the basic rule is that the breach is not "healed." If there is a period of time between the election and the time the member takes officer, however, then issues of Bylaws interpretation may come into play if the change in eligibility happened during that period.Well, I would ask, if a motion is adopted that violates the bylaws, and the bylaws later permit such a motion be adopted, is the motion still void? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Josh Martin Posted July 18, 2012 at 11:11 PM Report Share Posted July 18, 2012 at 11:11 PM Well, I would ask, if a motion is adopted that violates the bylaws, and the bylaws later permit such a motion be adopted, is the motion still void?It would seem the answer is yes, if I am correct in assuming that the principle expressed here would apply equally to other main motions:If a person who is ineligible to hold an office (under the proper construction of an applicable bylaw provision) is, at the conclusion of an election, declared to be elected to that office, that declaration by the chair is fatally flawed, and a point of order to that effect can be raised at any time during his continuance in that office. The point of order will be well taken, regardless of events which may subsequently have occurred. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
J. J. Posted July 18, 2012 at 11:27 PM Report Share Posted July 18, 2012 at 11:27 PM It would seem the answer is yes, if I am correct in assuming that the principle expressed here would apply equally to other main motions:I certainly could not point to anything in the bylaws that would prohibit it. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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