Guest David J. Cain Posted August 20, 2012 at 06:13 PM Report Share Posted August 20, 2012 at 06:13 PM Unfortunately I am away from my office and my RONR book but here is my situation. The Chamber of Commerce president knows that at least four members of 11 cannot attend a scheduled meeting and the agenda has not been published yet. He is asking for proxies from the four members and others that cannot attend even before the agenda is published. His assumption is that a proxy allows the member to vote on any and all subjects that are discussed without specifically being covered in the proxy. My thoughts are that this could start a bad precedence. The president alone could show up with generalized proxies from a majority (required for quorum) of the members and do what he/she wanted.I think the answer is that whatever the bylaws allow can be done with a proxy. Can they really be that general? Unfortunately my bylaws are also back home in my office. Opinions please?David J. CainCOC Board Member Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chris Harrison Posted August 20, 2012 at 06:37 PM Report Share Posted August 20, 2012 at 06:37 PM Proxy voting isn't allowed unless the bylaws specifically provide for them (RONR pp. 423-424). If the bylaws do provide for proxy voting then they should provide for all of the details (and RONR is going to be less than helpful if they don't). Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Edgar Posted August 20, 2012 at 07:20 PM Report Share Posted August 20, 2012 at 07:20 PM Unfortunately I am away from my office and my RONR book . . . Good news. All you have to do is click here. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tim Wynn Posted August 20, 2012 at 09:38 PM Report Share Posted August 20, 2012 at 09:38 PM I think the answer is that whatever the bylaws allow can be done with a proxy. Can they really be that general? Absentee voting has to be authorized in the bylaws; otherwise, it's not allowed. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Edgar Posted August 20, 2012 at 10:31 PM Report Share Posted August 20, 2012 at 10:31 PM Absentee voting has to be authorized in the bylaws; otherwise, it's not allowed.Ah, but the magic of proxies is that the person voting is present. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tim Wynn Posted August 20, 2012 at 11:03 PM Report Share Posted August 20, 2012 at 11:03 PM Ah, but the magic of proxies is that the person voting is present.In that case, one person = one vote. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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