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Progressive discipline


Guest John

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We had a member because of misconduct was given a 30 day suspension. The night of the meeting there was another issue of misconduct. The following meeting the member was given a letter of warning. My question is should this not be progressive and given a 60 or 90 day suspension because of the members 30 day suspension? Was it right to issue a letter of warning after the 30 day suspension?

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My question is should this not be progressive and given a 60 or 90 day suspension because of the members 30 day suspension?

Do you think each punishment should be more severe than the last, regardless of the offense? That's the rationale behind the so-called "three strikes" rules which sometimes sends people to prison for life for stealing a loaf of bread. But,as Mr. Harrison suggests, if that's what your organization wants, go for it.

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Occured outside of the meeting

Well, mainly this affects what part of Ch. XX you should look at if your Bylaws are silent on disciplinary procedures. If your Bylaws have their own disciplinary procedures, follow those.

In any event, the main concern of RONR is the process for reaching decisions, not the decision itself. This applies to discipline as well. Only the assembly can determine the appropriate penalty.

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Would this set a presidence for future discipline?

Well, mainly this affects what part of Ch. XX you should look at if your Bylaws are silent on disciplinary procedures. If your Bylaws have their own disciplinary procedures, follow those.

In any event, the main concern of RONR is the process for reaching decisions, not the decision itself. This applies to discipline as well. Only the assembly can determine the appropriate penalty.

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Would this set a presidence for future discipline?

No. A precedent applies when interpreting the assembly's rules, and a precedent is set by a ruling of the chair and any subsequent appeal. It would also not bind the assembly to follow the same course of action in a similar case in the future.

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