Guest Niles Posted January 2, 2013 at 09:35 PM Report Share Posted January 2, 2013 at 09:35 PM During a meeting a member of a deliberative body (home owners association) attempts to stiffle discussion by citing Robert's Rules. However Robert's Rules have never been adopted by the HOA. Can he cite a rule in Robert's without the book being officially adopted by the group? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Edgar Posted January 2, 2013 at 09:42 PM Report Share Posted January 2, 2013 at 09:42 PM Can he cite a rule in Robert's without the book being officially adopted by the group?Well, it could be argued that your group is bound by the common parliamentary principles best expressed in RONR whether it has formally adopted it or not. But if this person is using RONR to "stifle discussion", the odds are extremely good that he's mis-using it. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tim Wynn Posted January 2, 2013 at 09:44 PM Report Share Posted January 2, 2013 at 09:44 PM During a meeting a member of a deliberative body (home owners association) attempts to stiffle discussion by citing Robert's Rules. However Robert's Rules have never been adopted by the HOA. Can he cite a rule in Robert's without the book being officially adopted by the group?RONR does not stifle anything but disorder. If the association has adopted or is otherwise bound by a different manual on parliamentary law, anything that RONR has to say in conflict with that manual has no bearing. However, RONR may be persuasive in cases not covered by your rules of order, but it is not binding. By the way, how is this member trying to use RONR to stifle? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
g40 Posted January 2, 2013 at 11:29 PM Report Share Posted January 2, 2013 at 11:29 PM Perhaps the OP could give an example. It is also possible that "discussion" should be "stifled". For example, during the deliberative part of the meeting, under RONR, there needs to be a motion, properly seconded, before "debate" (or perhaps discussion) proceeds. It would be perfectly proper for a member of the assembly to raise a point of order that this "discussion" is proceeding without a motion on the floor. One might (improperly, I believe) at this as citing Robert's Rules to stifle discussion, but I would consider it very proper in moving the meeting along to consider specifically proposed actions. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
David A Foulkes Posted January 2, 2013 at 11:33 PM Report Share Posted January 2, 2013 at 11:33 PM Can he cite a rule in Robert's without the book being officially adopted by the group?Without actually answering this question (see Mr. Wynn's reply), there are times where "discussion" (RONR calls it debate) is not allowed. One example would be while voting is taking place, and another would be when the immediately pending motion is not debatable.So, a few more details might get you farther along here. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Edgar Posted January 2, 2013 at 11:59 PM Report Share Posted January 2, 2013 at 11:59 PM So, a few more details might get you farther along here.And one of those details might be just who is meeting, the general membership of the association or the board. And, if the board, just who is doing the "discussing", a member of the board or a general member of the association. And, as mentioned already, just when, in the course of the meeting, is this "discussion" taking place. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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