Guest bob Posted March 21, 2013 at 11:59 AM Report Share Posted March 21, 2013 at 11:59 AM If an aendment to by-laws is going to require a 2/3 majority in future action, does it need a 2/3 majority to be put in to effect? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chris Harrison Posted March 21, 2013 at 12:08 PM Report Share Posted March 21, 2013 at 12:08 PM Not unless that is the voting requirement as it is now. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
David A Foulkes Posted March 21, 2013 at 01:50 PM Report Share Posted March 21, 2013 at 01:50 PM If an aendment to by-laws is going to require a 2/3 majority in future action, does it need a 2/3 majority to be put in to effect?What do your bylaws say is the voting requirement to amend them currently? If by "put in to effect" you mean to adopt the motion to amend, that's what it will take. And the phrase "2/3 majority" is a tad ambiguous -- stick with "2/3 vote" instead. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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