Casting a ballot for unanimous consent?

[Sidd M]

Hi All,

There seems to be a bit of confusion about whether or not a ballot needs to be cast for unanimous consent, for motions that are NOT related to elections. I already read this thread (https://robertsrules.forumflash.com/topic/20339-secretary-casting-vote-in-uncontested-election/).

My question is, for main motions such as adopting the agenda, approving the minutes of the last meeting, is it necessary for the Chair to "cast one ballot for unanimous consent"?

I've also seen other variations of this phrasing, such as the image below, as well as "the chair asked the secretary to cast all ballots for unanimous consent". 

It seems a bit outdated & unnecessary... 

[Atul Kapur]

1 hour ago, Sidd M said:

My question is, for main motions such as adopting the agenda, approving the minutes of the last meeting, is it necessary for the Chair to "cast one ballot for unanimous consent"?

Not according to RONR

[Dan Honemann]

4 hours ago, Sidd M said:

My question is, for main motions such as adopting the agenda, approving the minutes of the last meeting, is it necessary for the Chair to "cast one ballot for unanimous consent"?

No. As a matter of fact, the procedure you suggest seems to make no sense at all.

It would be highly unusual for the chair to seek unanimous consent to the adoption of an agenda or program, but in any event, whenever the chair does seek unanimous consent he or she should do so in the manner outlined on pages 54-56 of RONR (11th ed.).

Although proposed corrections to minutes are usually handled by unanimous consent, no vote should ever be taken on approval of the minutes, and unanimous consent to their approval should not be sought. When no further corrections to the minutes are proposed, the chair simply declares that the minutes are approved (RONR, 11th ed., pp. 354-55).