Guest Jamie Posted December 15, 2010 at 10:02 PM Report Share Posted December 15, 2010 at 10:02 PM If you have a requirement that only a person from the prevailing side of a vote can move to reconsider, does the person who seconds that motion also have to have the same qualification, i.e., does that person also have to be from the prevailing side? In this situation, a vote was taken 4-3 to strike down a proposed ordinance. The rules state that only a person who was on the prevailing side could move for reconsideration based on new information that was presented; it does not speak to any requirement for the person who seconds the motion. One person from the prevailing side moved to reconsider, but the other three opponents would not second the motion based on the new information, so someone who was on the losing side seconded the motion to go reconsider. The person who moved to reconsider changed her vote and the ordinance passed. The rules state that if a situation is not specifically addressed, then Robert's Rules apply. Would this be considered a proper motion to reconsider? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Robert B Fish Posted December 15, 2010 at 10:07 PM Report Share Posted December 15, 2010 at 10:07 PM If you have a requirement that only a person from the prevailing side of a vote can move to reconsider, does the person who seconds that motion also have to have the same qualification, i.e., does that person also have to be from the prevailing side? In this situation, a vote was taken 4-3 to strike down a proposed ordinance. The rules state that only a person who was on the prevailing side could move for reconsideration based on new information that was presented; it does not speak to any requirement for the person who seconds the motion. One person from the prevailing side moved to reconsider, but the other three opponents would not second the motion based on the new information, so someone who was on the losing side seconded the motion to go reconsider. The person who moved to reconsider changed her vote and the ordinance passed. The rules state that if a situation is not specifically addressed, then Robert's Rules apply. Would this be considered a proper motion to reconsider?In meetings of less than about a dozen, seconding of motions is not required. For sake of argument, let's assume that rule is not observed in yoru group.There is no rule in RONR that requires the person seconding a motion to reconsider to be from the prevailing side. A person seconding a motion only indicates that he/she wants the assembly to consider the motion. He could wish to have it defeated. For example, the person making a motion cannot speak against it. The person seconding the motion does not have that restriction.-Bob Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gary Novosielski Posted December 16, 2010 at 12:41 AM Report Share Posted December 16, 2010 at 12:41 AM If you have a requirement that only a person from the prevailing side of a vote can move to reconsider, does the person who seconds that motion also have to have the same qualification, i.e., does that person also have to be from the prevailing side? No. Anyone can second that motion--even somebody who wasn't present at all when the original vote was taken. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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