Guest mariposa Posted January 25, 2011 at 10:53 PM Report Share Posted January 25, 2011 at 10:53 PM If the by-laws of an organization require certain motions to carry only by unanimous vote, how does an abstention affect the outcome of the vote? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hmtcastle Posted January 25, 2011 at 10:56 PM Report Share Posted January 25, 2011 at 10:56 PM If the by-laws of an organization require certain motions to carry only by unanimous vote, how does an abstention affect the outcome of the vote?It doesn't . . . if you define a unanimous vote as one in which everyone who votes votes the same way. Thus a vote of 1-0, with 9 abstentions, can be considered a unanimous vote.See also FAQ #6. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gary Novosielski Posted January 25, 2011 at 10:57 PM Report Share Posted January 25, 2011 at 10:57 PM If the by-laws of an organization require certain motions to carry only by unanimous vote, how does an abstention affect the outcome of the vote?It would be dangerous to speculate based on only a paraphrase of the bylaws, but...A unanimous vote presumably means a vote where all of the votes are Yes, and none of the votes are No. Abstention from voting should not affect the outcome at all, because abstentions aren't votes at all. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Alice Posted January 26, 2011 at 12:49 AM Report Share Posted January 26, 2011 at 12:49 AM It would be dangerous to speculate based on only a paraphrase of the bylaws, but...A unanimous vote presumably means a vote where all of the votes are Yes, and none of the votes are No. Abstention from voting should not affect the outcome at all, because abstentions aren't votes at all. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gary Novosielski Posted January 26, 2011 at 01:14 AM Report Share Posted January 26, 2011 at 01:14 AM umm, yes? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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