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Speaking before making a motion


Guest georgiadore

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Often I have heard people say - "I've already spoken, so I can't make a motion" - i.e., one must make the motion before making any argument. My question is whether this is actually in Robert's Rules - and where? I know it is better form - but is it required? Is one forbidden to make an initial motion if he/she has already made some comments on a matter?

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There is an entire chapter dedicated to how a motion is considered. See RONR pp. 31-55 for details. Quickly, the motion is made, it is seconded, the Chair states the question, it is debated, the Chair puts the question, and the Chair announces the results of the vote. However, things can be done a bit more lax in small Board of about a dozen members or fewer (RONR pp. 470-471).

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Often I have heard people say - "I've already spoken, so I can't make a motion" - i.e., one must make the motion before making any argument. My question is whether this is actually in Robert's Rules - and where? I know it is better form - but is it required? Is one forbidden to make an initial motion if he/she has already made some comments on a matter?

There is no rule resembling this concept. You can't speak in debate on a motion before the motion is made. It may be counterintuitive, but, in a meeting, you don't state your case and then close by outlining the proposal of what you want. You start by making a proposal (a motion); then you offer supporting arguments.

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There is no rule resembling this concept. You can't speak in debate on a motion before the motion is made. It may be counterintuitive, but, in a meeting, you don't state your case and then close by outlining the proposal of what you want. You start by making a proposal (a motion); then you offer supporting arguments.

So - there is no rule technically forbidding one to speak first? In other words, if someone did what you are stating (stating a case then making a proposal) - they would not necessarily be ruled out of order - though their form is not best?

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Would you mind a mention of what is said on p. 33, or might that muddy the waters?

Chris H. and Tim Wynn have already alluded to the general rule that, in full blown assemblies, discussion of any subject is permitted only with reference to a pending motion. But the question asked in the original post was “Is one forbidden to make an initial motion if he/she has already made some comments on a matter?” In other words, if a member has already violated the rule against discussing a matter while no motion is pending, is he thereby prohibited from making a motion concerning it. The answer to this question is no, there is no rule prohibiting him from making a motion under such circumstances.

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Chris H. and Tim Wynn have already alluded to the general rule that, in full blown assemblies, discussion of any subject is permitted only with reference to a pending motion. But the question asked in the original post was “Is one forbidden to make an initial motion if he/she has already made some comments on a matter?” In other words, if a member has already violated the rule against discussing a matter while no motion is pending, is he thereby prohibited from making a motion concerning it. The answer to this question is no, there is no rule prohibiting him from making a motion under such circumstances.

(Thanks, but it was a yes-or-no question. I was gonna go there. Have you ever explicitly rescinded the statement that you don't like typing?)

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