jimenet Posted August 16, 2011 at 08:30 PM Report Share Posted August 16, 2011 at 08:30 PM In an organization which includes families as members, is it common for both spouses or partners to EACH have a vote in general membership matters? If so, does that mean the votes of members who are single have half the value of votes of spouses/partners? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
George Mervosh Posted August 16, 2011 at 08:34 PM Report Share Posted August 16, 2011 at 08:34 PM In RONR it's one person, one vote. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Robert B Fish Posted August 16, 2011 at 08:42 PM Report Share Posted August 16, 2011 at 08:42 PM It depends on how your bylaws define membership. If the "family" is a "member" then each member gets one vote. If the members of the family are members of your organization, then each member gets one vote. IMO, if the family is the member it would take a majority of the family to decide their vote. Thus if the family is 2 persons and they can't agree, they can't vote and the organization is not required to accomidate that with 1/2 votes.-Bob Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jimenet Posted August 16, 2011 at 08:54 PM Author Report Share Posted August 16, 2011 at 08:54 PM Thank you. That is all very helpful. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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