Guest bill Posted May 29, 2012 at 01:52 AM Report Share Posted May 29, 2012 at 01:52 AM If someone is nominated and accepts do they have to be present at the agm to be elected? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jstackpo Posted May 29, 2012 at 01:53 AM Report Share Posted May 29, 2012 at 01:53 AM No. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Rev Ed Posted May 29, 2012 at 02:27 AM Report Share Posted May 29, 2012 at 02:27 AM No. However, if elected they would have to refuse election immediately upon being notified of the election if they choose to refuse election. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jstackpo Posted May 29, 2012 at 06:02 AM Report Share Posted May 29, 2012 at 06:02 AM Although their prior acceptance of a nomination, as Guest Bill said happened, means they don't get a chance to refuse after the fact (I suppose). Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tim Wynn Posted May 29, 2012 at 02:46 PM Report Share Posted May 29, 2012 at 02:46 PM Although their prior acceptance of a nomination, as Guest Bill said happened, means they don't get a chance to refuse after the fact (I suppose).I don't suppose such a thing. If a member says he'll abstain on an upcoming vote, he doesn't lose his "chance" to vote. If a member says he won't object to unanimous consent to a certain motion at the next meeting, he doesn't lose his "chance" to object. Even if a member gives notice of intent to make a motion, with such notice being mailed to all members, he is not obligated to make that motion. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jstackpo Posted May 29, 2012 at 02:53 PM Report Share Posted May 29, 2012 at 02:53 PM Oh...Kay... but it seems to me that a prior acceptance of the office (if elected) puts him IN the office when he IS elected.He is free to (promptly) resign if he wishes, but that leaves a vacancy behind, not an incomplete election. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Dan Honemann Posted May 29, 2012 at 02:58 PM Report Share Posted May 29, 2012 at 02:58 PM I don't suppose such a thing.If a member says he'll abstain on an upcoming vote, he doesn't lose his "chance" to vote.If a member says he won't object to unanimous consent to a certain motion at the next meeting, he doesn't lose his "chance" to object.Even if a member gives notice of intent to make a motion, with such notice being mailed to all members, he is not obligated to make that motion.Oh, I think that read in the context of this thread, John's supposition is correct. The election of an absent member who has consented to his candidacy becomes final immediately. He can't decline to accept the office. He's already in it and will need to resign. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tim Wynn Posted May 29, 2012 at 10:06 PM Report Share Posted May 29, 2012 at 10:06 PM Oh, I think that read in the context of this thread, John's supposition is correct. The election of an absent member who has consented to his candidacy becomes final immediately. He can't decline to accept the office. He's already in it and will need to resign.Yes, with the factors included in your post, the election would be final. However, I felt that Dr. Stackpole's statement hinted at the suggestion that a member who consented to his candidacy could not decline if present during the election… though that's probably not what John had in mind. Sorry, John. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jane Posted June 7, 2012 at 11:08 PM Report Share Posted June 7, 2012 at 11:08 PM If there were two open positions available and both positions were voted on and reported to the membership and prior to the next meeting when new officers take their position (according to our bylaws), one who the was incumbent resigns and second was a new member declines the position leaving two open vacancies.Just if you can let me know if I'm on the right track.... "Our bylaws state all vacancies shall be filled by the President.." after reading "Rules of Order in Brief, pg.79-80" it appears that the one position, not the incumbent, would go back to a ballot until someone is willing to accept receives a majority and the other opening would be filled by our President?If you could point me in the direction to support this or explain this better I would appreciate the help. Thanks! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jstackpo Posted June 8, 2012 at 12:09 AM Report Share Posted June 8, 2012 at 12:09 AM Well, you have a problem... In RONR land when someone is declared elected he/she takes office immediately so there is no opportunity to resign (before taking office) or decline.But it seems you have a gap between the election and taking office. RONR doesn't fill that gap, so you, collectively, will have to do so.Can't point you to rules in RONR about the gap, because there aren't any.BTW, start a new question in a new thread/topic, next time. You might get better results that way. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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