Ursula Posted January 30, 2013 at 07:03 PM Report Share Posted January 30, 2013 at 07:03 PM There is an issue that comes up repeatedly for our assembly. A motion from the Rules committee (based on legal advice received) resolved it in 2004. In 2010 the same issue was brought up again, and the Rules committee reaffirmed the resolution of 2004.Now someone has brought it back again. Do we really have to deal with this every few years? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chris Harrison Posted January 30, 2013 at 07:42 PM Report Share Posted January 30, 2013 at 07:42 PM Yes (RONR pp. 336-342). However, depending on the nature of the motion, as soon as it is made the assembly may be able to decide with a 2/3 vote not to consider it (RONR pp. 267-270). If that strategy is not possible the assembly can still by a 2/3 vote force the motion to a vote after the motion maker has had an opportunity to speak in debate (RONR pp. 197-209). Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jstackpo Posted January 30, 2013 at 08:51 PM Report Share Posted January 30, 2013 at 08:51 PM I read Ursala's question as (at least) implying that the motion was adopted back in 2002.If that is the case, then it would not be proper to make the same motion again in 2010 and 2013, since the adopted motion is still in force.If something about the situation to which the 2002 motion applies has changed, it is proper to move to amend the 2002 motion to make it fit the (partially) new situation. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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