Guest Kate L Posted January 21, 2020 at 06:28 PM Report Share Posted January 21, 2020 at 06:28 PM A committee held a meeting (Meeting #1) and there wasn't a quorum. No business requiring a vote was handled, but general information was provided. In the following committee meeting (Meeting #2,) a quorum was present. The minutes of Meeting #1 were presented for a vote. Anyone not present at Meeting #1 would have to abstain, but if those present at Meeting #1 were the only ones to vote, the minutes would not pass. Could we have only those present at Meeting #1 vote on the minutes, and consider them passed if everyone present at Meeting #1 voted to accept them? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
George Mervosh Posted January 21, 2020 at 06:33 PM Report Share Posted January 21, 2020 at 06:33 PM (edited) 6 minutes ago, Guest Kate L said: A committee held a meeting (Meeting #1) and there wasn't a quorum. No business requiring a vote was handled, but general information was provided. In the following committee meeting (Meeting #2,) a quorum was present. The minutes of Meeting #1 were presented for a vote. Anyone not present at Meeting #1 would have to abstain, but if those present at Meeting #1 were the only ones to vote, the minutes would not pass. Could we have only those present at Meeting #1 vote on the minutes, and consider them passed if everyone present at Meeting #1 voted to accept them? Two things first: 1) RONR does not require committees to keep minutes. 2) No vote is taken on the final approval of the minutes because, after any corrections are dealt with, the chair simply declares them approved without a vote. RONR (11th ed.), pp. 354-355 That said " It should be noted that a member's absence from the meeting for which minutes are being approved does not prevent the member from participating in their correction or approval. " RONR (11th ed.), p. 355 Edited January 21, 2020 at 06:34 PM by George Mervosh Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Josh Martin Posted January 21, 2020 at 07:04 PM Report Share Posted January 21, 2020 at 07:04 PM (edited) 40 minutes ago, Guest Kate L said: A committee held a meeting (Meeting #1) and there wasn't a quorum. No business requiring a vote was handled, but general information was provided. In the following committee meeting (Meeting #2,) a quorum was present. The minutes of Meeting #1 were presented for a vote. Anyone not present at Meeting #1 would have to abstain, but if those present at Meeting #1 were the only ones to vote, the minutes would not pass. Could we have only those present at Meeting #1 vote on the minutes, and consider them passed if everyone present at Meeting #1 voted to accept them? In addition to Mr. Mervosh’s comments, I would add the following: First, minutes for a meeting without a quorum are (or should be) extremely brief, so I don’t know that whether someone was present will make much difference. Remember that the minutes are a record of what was done, not what was said. Second, unless your assembly has its own rules on this matter, the statement that “but if those present at Meeting #1 were the only ones to vote, the minutes would not pass” is not correct. See FAQ #6. Edited January 21, 2020 at 07:08 PM by Josh Martin Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Joshua Katz Posted January 22, 2020 at 03:29 AM Report Share Posted January 22, 2020 at 03:29 AM In addition to the comments above, I would just add that, if a vote is taken (which, as noted, it shouldn't be) membership carries the right to vote, and denial of that right is a serious violation. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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