Guest ron Posted June 2, 2010 at 06:04 PM Report Posted June 2, 2010 at 06:04 PM If a voter in a board election for executive officers is, after the election, deemed to have been ineligible to vote, is the election voided? If so, can only board members who voted in the first election vote the second time (i.e., members who were absent for the first vote?)
jstackpo Posted June 2, 2010 at 06:22 PM Report Posted June 2, 2010 at 06:22 PM The election is voided only if that one vote by the ineligible voter could have made a difference in the outcome. Did it?If you do need to re-do the election, than any board member who shows up at the election meeting may vote.
Guest ron Posted June 2, 2010 at 06:25 PM Report Posted June 2, 2010 at 06:25 PM If a voter in a board election for executive officers is, after the election, deemed to have been ineligible to vote, is the election voided? If so, can only board members who voted in the first election vote the second time (i.e., members who were absent for the first vote?)
Guest ron Posted June 2, 2010 at 06:34 PM Report Posted June 2, 2010 at 06:34 PM The election is voided only if that one vote by the ineligible voter could have made a difference in the outcome. Did it?If you do need to re-do the election, than any board member who shows up at the election meeting may vote.
Guest ron Posted June 2, 2010 at 06:36 PM Report Posted June 2, 2010 at 06:36 PM We don't know if one vote made the difference - it was a secret ballot. Would it then be up to the recollection of the neutral party who counted the votes (and later discarded the ballots)?
hmtcastle Posted June 2, 2010 at 06:39 PM Report Posted June 2, 2010 at 06:39 PM We don't know if one vote made the difference - it was a secret ballot. Would it then be up to the recollection of the neutral party who counted the votes (and later discarded the ballots)?You don't have to know if the ineligible vote did make a difference, only that it could have. That is, if there was a one-vote difference in the outcome (e.g. 27-26).
Guest ron Posted June 2, 2010 at 06:41 PM Report Posted June 2, 2010 at 06:41 PM You don't have to know if the ineligible vote did make a difference, only that it could have. That is, if there was a one-vote difference in the outcome (e.g. 27-26).
Guest ron Posted June 2, 2010 at 06:42 PM Report Posted June 2, 2010 at 06:42 PM You don't have to know if the ineligible vote did make a difference, only that it could have. That is, if there was a one-vote difference in the outcome (e.g. 27-26).
Guest ron Posted June 2, 2010 at 06:45 PM Report Posted June 2, 2010 at 06:45 PM You've hit the nail on the head: if the vote were 7-6, the election is voided; if the vote were 8-5, it is not voided, because even if one voter was ineligible, it could not have made a difference in the outcome; therefore, there is no cause for a new election. Am I reading you correctly? thanks
J. J. Posted June 2, 2010 at 07:24 PM Report Posted June 2, 2010 at 07:24 PM You've hit the nail on the head: if the vote were 7-6, the election is voided; if the vote were 8-5, it is not voided, because even if one voter was ineligible, it could not have made a difference in the outcome; therefore, there is no cause for a new election. Am I reading you correctly? thanksThe results, how many votes each candidate received should be announced and recorded in the minutes(p. 404). If the 7-6 result was the case, yes, you would have to re-ballot. If the vote was 8-5, you would not have to re-ballot (p. 402).The mere fact that a vote was cast by someone ineligible does not invalidate the election.
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