Terence Posted October 3, 2017 at 01:18 PM Report Share Posted October 3, 2017 at 01:18 PM Is the motion to end debate (previous question) in order even if everyone in the meeting has not taken the floor? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
George Mervosh Posted October 3, 2017 at 01:21 PM Report Share Posted October 3, 2017 at 01:21 PM Just now, Terence said: Is the motion to end debate (previous question) in order even if everyone in the meeting has not taken the floor? Yes. For example, the very first member assigned the floor to debate (usually the maker of the debatable motion) can conclude his remarks by moving for the previous question. But it's just a motion and it requires a 2/3 vote to adopt, so it could easily be voted down if enough members feel there needs to be more debate. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Joshua Katz Posted October 3, 2017 at 01:32 PM Report Share Posted October 3, 2017 at 01:32 PM In part, this is the point of the motion - to cut off debate, rather than having to sit through interminable speeches from everyone in the room. Note: it is not in order in committee, and operates differently in some legislative bodies. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Shmuel Gerber Posted October 4, 2017 at 01:39 PM Report Share Posted October 4, 2017 at 01:39 PM On 10/3/2017 at 9:18 AM, Terence said: Is the motion to end debate (previous question) in order even if everyone in the meeting has not taken the floor? Well, the member making the motion for the Previous Question has to have taken the floor to make the motion. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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