Tricky, because we are getting close (if not already there) to legal questions, but... Having "all the powers" doesn't mean they have EXCLUSIVE use of "all the powers". The board can do what it wants (consistent with bylaws, laws, &c.) but the association can, too. The Board is given all those powers (by the bylaws, which were adopted by the membership) so that it can do stuff for the association between meetings of the association, but when the association meets it has those powers, too. And, per RONR, if the Association and the Board come into conflict in exercising those powers -- the two entities want to do different (mutually exclusive) stuff -- the Association prevails. Whether "entire management" is a grant to the Board of sole or exclusive use of those powers , I can't answer. Ultimately, the association decides the "meaning" of the bylaws, see p. 588 for how that can be done. But, I suppose, in this litigious age, if someone brings a suit over which "stuff" to do, the courts get in there, too.