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New By-laws null & void


Guest John

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Since a new Executive Board has been in place, five (5) new By-Laws have been voted in. It's been discovered that the Board didn't allow the entire membership to view the proposals prior to voting them in. One By-Law involved the annual elections. If the By-Law is null & void, are the election results also null & void?

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Since a new Executive Board has been in place, five (5) new By-Laws have been voted in. It's been discovered that the Board didn't allow the entire membership to view the proposals prior to voting them in.

Do your Bylaws give the Executive Board the authority to amend the Bylaws? If so, do they require the board to "allow the entire membership to view the proposals prior to voting them in?"

One By-Law involved the annual elections. If the By-Law is null & void, are the election results also null & void?

Maybe. It's impossible to tell without more information about the rule in question.

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Yes. The Executive Board along with the othe Board members are allowed to amend the By-Laws. And yes, the are clearly required to disseminate the proposals, allowing for their input, amongst the entire membership. The Board had by-passed this requirement and tried to "slip" the amendments in.

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The Executive Board along with the other Board members are allowed to amend the By-Laws. And yes, the are clearly required to disseminate the proposals, allowing for their input, amongst the entire membership. The Board had by-passed this requirement and tried to "slip" the amendments in.

. . . our "voting membership" consists only of Board Members.

Since "the entire membership" can't vote, I fail to see how it matters whether "the executive board along with the other board members" (?) solicits their input or not. If the rules say they should then they should but, really, what's the point?

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Since "the entire membership" can't vote, I fail to see how it matters whether "the executive board along with the other board members" (?) solicits their input or not. If the rules say they should then they should but, really, what's the point?

On the other hand one could construe the rule (whatever it really says) to be a form of previous notice to "the entire membership", and they may have even granted them a right of membership (debating/input) in their bylaws. We just don't know for sure.

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Since "the entire membership" can't vote, I fail to see how it matters whether "the executive board along with the other board members" (?) solicits their input or not. If the rules say they should then they should but, really, what's the point?

One would hope that the board members would take the input into account when making their decision.

Yes. The Executive Board along with the othe Board members are allowed to amend the By-Laws. And yes, the are clearly required to disseminate the proposals, allowing for their input, amongst the entire membership. The Board had by-passed this requirement and tried to "slip" the amendments in.

No, they cannot. The reason being is our "voting membership" consistes only of Board Members. If they didn't like the proposed amendment, it would be voted down.

It will ultimately be up to the organization to interpret its own Bylaws. See RONR, 11th ed., pgs. 588-591 for some Principles of Interpretation. It may be that the amendments are null and void, but it's not clear from the facts presented what the membership would be able to do about it.

As I noted previously, it's not clear from the facts presented whether the election would also be null and void.

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