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Election Results


Guest Votter_87

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Well out tellers and nominating committee are one in the same. There was a comment after the meeting claiming that after the results were announced that there should have been a vote for the current (outgoing) bord to accept. The results include the 15 elected members. Those 15 elect the officers amoung themselves at the first meeting as a new board

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There was a comment after the meeting claiming that after the results were announced that there should have been a vote for the current (outgoing) board to accept.

No. The board has no business accepting or rejecting the choices of the general membership. In fact, the board wasn't even there. The board can only act as a board at a board meeting. I'm assuming the election of fifteen board members took place at a meeting of the general membership.

 

By the way, do you elect all fifteen at the same time or are the terms of office staggered?

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Just to clarify the Regularly scheduled election  meeting is a meeting with 4  officers and 11 voting board members. The tellers tallied the results. Handed the results to the president and were read allowd. The current board of four officers and 11 curent board member were their. General member which are all property owners were also allowed to be present. however they have no athourity at an assembly.

 

So your saying members can ask to review the ballots but the board has no athourity to accept or reject?

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General member which are all property owners were also allowed to be present. however they have no authority at an assembly.

Sorry, I'm confused. I thought we were talking about a meeting of the association (i.e. the general membership) at which some or all of the board members were elected.

 

The fact that some or all of the officers and board members were present didn't turn this into a meeting of the board.

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It was infact a business meeting with the elections nested in to the agenda. Still the idea that the current group of voting board members needs to accept is wrong. Correct?

 

Well, generally speaking, once people are elected (and they accept the offices) the election is complete. There's no need for any further action.

 

But you might want to wait for others to reply since I'm no longer sure of who's being elected and who's doing the electing.

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Well, generally speaking, once people are elected (and they accept the offices) the election is complete. There's no need for any further action.

 

But you might want to wait for others to reply since I'm no longer am sure of who's being elected and who's doing the electing.

I'm lost as well.  I still don't know what group elected the board members (directors).  It would be highly unusual... but not completely unheard of... for the board to be electing its own members.  It is almost always the general membership... in this  case the property owners... who elect the directors.  It is then rather common for the board to elect the officers (president, secretary, treasurer, etc) from among the board members.

 

I'm clueless as to what is going on and as to what group did the electing.

 

Edited to add:  I'm also clueless as to the meaning of this sentence:

 

It was infact a business meeting with the elections nested in to the agenda.

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Ok. Let back up. Sorry for any confusion.



General membership (Home Owners) Receive ballots listing 25 general members that accept nomination.

Ballots delivered to tellers.

Regular board meeting (which always welcomes general membership) convenes monthly to conduct business and at the same meeting accept any remaining ballots from general membership. Tellers at this same meeting tally the results and hand them to the Chair who reads them allowed.

Meeting adjourned. Following the meeting a member of the board says the results should have been put up to the outgoing board of 15 for a vote to accept or reject.

Im assuming it not with in their right to vote on the results? they are what they are however they do have the right to inspect the ballots under the supervision of the election committee. Correct?



 

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I'm assuming it's not within their right to vote on the results?

 

Thanks for the clarification.

 

I think that's a very reasonable assumption.

 

By the way, does the general membership of the association (i.e. the homeowners) ever meet?

 

And who (I hesitate to ask) has the authority to amend the bylaws (or whatever your governing document is called)?

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General membership does not meet on thier own. They are aoutomaticly members when they buy a home. Nost could careless that thier is a board.

 

2/3 of board needs to acceptt he proposed amendment. Then it goes to general membership. 2/3 of general membership must vote infavor of the amendment to be.

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Im assuming it not with in their right to vote on the results?

Yes, unless the bylaws provide otherwise. There is really no reason to have the board always vote whether to "approve" the results. Generally, the results are presumed to be valid. Since the general membership never meets, however, it may be advisable to adopt rules in the bylaws authorizing the board to handle any disputes regarding the results. The board does not have this authority, however, unless the bylaws so provide.

they are what they are however they do have the right to inspect the ballots under the supervision of the election committee. Correct?

No, unless the organization's rules so provide. See above.

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