Guest Len Wood Posted August 2, 2017 at 01:50 AM Report Share Posted August 2, 2017 at 01:50 AM Can A presiding officer at any time call for a vote to be unanimous. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Joshua Katz Posted August 2, 2017 at 01:54 AM Report Share Posted August 2, 2017 at 01:54 AM Only if the rules require the vote to be unanimous - if you mean "can the presiding officer say the motion only passes if the vote is unanimous?" This is not a condition the chair can simply create. If you mean "can the chair demand that the vote be unanimous by pressuring people into changing their votes?" the answer is no. If you mean "can the chair label the vote unanimous when it is such (minus abstentions)" then the answer is yes. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Richard Brown Posted August 2, 2017 at 03:33 AM Report Share Posted August 2, 2017 at 03:33 AM Guest Len Wood, can you elaborate and tell us more about what you have in mind? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
J. J. Posted August 2, 2017 at 03:34 AM Report Share Posted August 2, 2017 at 03:34 AM A presiding officer can ask for unanimous consent, if no one objects and the vote is not required to be by ballot. A member could request that the members on the losing side to switch their votes, but they certainly are not required to change it. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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