Guest BigTex Posted December 4, 2019 at 03:55 PM Report Share Posted December 4, 2019 at 03:55 PM In previous meeting a motion to change bylaws was taken by ballot. With a 50/50 majority vote. Motion passed- with a 53% majority it has come to our attention that according to bylaws a 2/3rds vote is needed to change the bylaws. Does this mean the previous meetings motion is void due to not receiving the 2/3rds vote? or is this a point of order? or a rule out of order? many thanks. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
George Mervosh Posted December 4, 2019 at 04:01 PM Report Share Posted December 4, 2019 at 04:01 PM If a 2/3 vote (p. 401) was required, it's too late now to raise a point of order. See this Official Interpretation by the RONR authors, particularly the second paragraph of their answer https://www.robertsrules.com/interp_list.html#2006_18 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Rob Elsman Posted December 4, 2019 at 04:20 PM Report Share Posted December 4, 2019 at 04:20 PM I agree with Mr. Mervosh. The essence of Official Interpretation 2006-18 has been included in the newly revised text in RONR (11th ed.), pp. 408, 409. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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