Guest Dorsey Posted April 27, 2011 at 02:07 PM Report Share Posted April 27, 2011 at 02:07 PM If a commissioner makes a motion to Approve Conditionally because that's what is written on the meeting agenda but then immediately says "oppose", that motion is seconded and the consensus is oppose, would the vote on this ordinance have to be re-done? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
George Mervosh Posted April 27, 2011 at 02:19 PM Report Share Posted April 27, 2011 at 02:19 PM Check with the city solicitor. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Rev Ed Posted April 27, 2011 at 05:29 PM Report Share Posted April 27, 2011 at 05:29 PM I do not understand what you are asking. If a motion is made and seconded, the mover cannot speak out against the motion, however he/she can still vote against the motion when voting takes place. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gary Novosielski Posted April 27, 2011 at 06:16 PM Report Share Posted April 27, 2011 at 06:16 PM If a commissioner makes a motion to Approve Conditionally because that's what is written on the meeting agenda but then immediately says "oppose", that motion is seconded and the consensus is oppose, would the vote on this ordinance have to be re-done?It's not clear what went on.RONR does not have a motion called Approve Condiditonally so I'm assuming this was a main motion to approve something, with some sort of conditions set forth in the motion. The maker then immediately spoke against the motion he just made? That is not in order.The motion is seconded, after debate has already taken place? That's nonsensical."Consensus?" Was there a vote or wasn't there? I'm just an unfrozen caveman parliamentarian. Your strange rules of order confuse and frighten me. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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