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Guest Ben

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While discussing a motion (with two parts) that was properly introduced and seconded, a member amended the motion asking it to be split and voted on each part separately. The amendment was seconded. Another member objected with this "violation of RR because it would effectively place two motions on the floor simultaneously" which was not possible. Was the amendment proper ?

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While discussing a motion (with two parts) that was properly introduced and seconded, a member amended the motion asking it to be split and voted on each part separately. The amendment was seconded. Another member objected with this "violation of RR because it would effectively place two motions on the floor simultaneously" which was not possible. Was the amendment proper ?

A motion to divide the question is not an amendment, but there is such a motion. It certainly is not a violation of RONR to properly divide a divisible question; otherwise, the entire section 27 would be in big trouble. :)

(BTW, next time you have a new question, please post it as a new topic.)

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While discussing a motion (with two parts) that was properly introduced and seconded, a member amended the motion asking it to be split and voted on each part separately. The amendment was seconded. Another member objected with this "violation of RR because it would effectively place two motions on the floor simultaneously" which was not possible. Was the amendment proper ?

Well, no, not as an amendment--it would be a motion to divide the question. And it's perfectly proper as long as the two (or more) portions of the original single motion actually would make sense if considered separately. It doesn't place two motions on the floor at once, because the motions are then considered one after the other, not at the same time, and it certainly doesn't violate RONR.

If a majority agrees to divide the question, that's all that's needed.

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