Guest as_below Posted June 28, 2015 at 10:05 AM Report Share Posted June 28, 2015 at 10:05 AM If a group proclaims 'they will now use Robert's rules' then proceed to only use the functions of making motions and voting, are they still using 'Robert's Rules'?Meaning, if other rules (besides the above two procudures) are either not known or recognised, or largely ignored if known, is the group described as using the rules in this way, still using them?Just to clarify, the group in question has never had parlimentary training or learned through the book in any form.Like could they say "We currently do, and have always used Robert's Rules' to a third party, would they be lying? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jstackpo Posted June 28, 2015 at 10:13 AM Report Share Posted June 28, 2015 at 10:13 AM Lying is a bit strong a term... sounds to me more that the group is displaying its (collective) ignorance as to what "Robert's Rules" actually entails. Give the leaders copies of RONRIB:"Roberts Rules of Order Newly Revised In Brief", Updated Second Edition (Da Capo Press, Perseus Books Group, 2011). It is a splendid summary of all the rules you will really need in all but the most exceptional situations. And only $7.50! You can read it in an evening. Get both RONRIB and RONR (scroll down) at this link. Or in your local bookstore. It makes very good summer reading -- should be on everybody's list. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Rev Ed Posted June 28, 2015 at 06:12 PM Report Share Posted June 28, 2015 at 06:12 PM Well even Robert's Rules allows the group to come up with it's own rules even if Robert's Rules apply in other parliamentary issues. This is because the organization's own By-laws, Rules, and Standing Orders take precedence over anything in Robert's Rules. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
George Mervosh Posted June 29, 2015 at 12:51 PM Report Share Posted June 29, 2015 at 12:51 PM If a group proclaims 'they will now use Robert's rules' then proceed to only use the functions of making motions and voting, are they still using 'Robert's Rules'?Meaning, if other rules (besides the above two procudures) are either not known or recognised, or largely ignored if known, is the group described as using the rules in this way, still using them?Just to clarify, the group in question has never had parlimentary training or learned through the book in any form.Like could they say "We currently do, and have always used Robert's Rules' to a third party, would they be lying? If they properly follow RONR's rules only for the processing motions and voting, they're ahead of most groups who can't do either very well. I endorse Dr. Stackpole's idea about everyone having a copy of RONR In Brief. Mastering that little book would put your group miles ahead of many groups. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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