Andy Travis Posted April 16, 2015 at 03:56 AM Report Share Posted April 16, 2015 at 03:56 AM Is it necessary for all Board members in attendance to be in favor for a guest (a general member in this case) to come and speak at a Board meeting or does 2/3 majority rule? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Richard Brown Posted April 16, 2015 at 04:15 AM Report Share Posted April 16, 2015 at 04:15 AM This has come up recently in one or two other threads. I believe that a nonmember can be allowed or invited to attend a meeting and to address the body by a majority vote, but to speak in debate clearly requires a two thirds vote to suspend the rules. RONR p. 263 footnote. A request of a nonmember to be allowed to attend a meeting or to address the body will often be granted by the chair by unanimous consent if there is no objection. See also pages 96-97 re guests attending meetings and addressing the assembly. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Andy Travis Posted April 16, 2015 at 04:57 AM Author Report Share Posted April 16, 2015 at 04:57 AM I am confused because in your first paragraph you say you belive a nonmember may attend by majority vote but in your second paragraph you say attendance can be by unanimous consent. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jstackpo Posted April 16, 2015 at 05:22 AM Report Share Posted April 16, 2015 at 05:22 AM Majority in favor is the minimum requirement; "unanimous consent" means there were no objections which clearly meets (exceeds) the minimum requirement. UC is a shorthand way to adopt something about which there is no controversy, commonly. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Andy Travis Posted April 16, 2015 at 06:55 AM Author Report Share Posted April 16, 2015 at 06:55 AM If the chair does not respond to the non-members request to attend and address the Board and no other Board member has objected to the non-member attending, is this a form of unanimous consent (even by the chair since they haven't objected) that the non-member may attend. Obviously someone would have to inform the non-member that they can attend (in my situation if the chair doesn't or can't inform them there is someone who can). Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Dan Honemann Posted April 16, 2015 at 10:12 AM Report Share Posted April 16, 2015 at 10:12 AM If the chair does not respond to the non-members request to attend and address the Board and no other Board member has objected to the non-member attending, is this a form of unanimous consent (even by the chair since they haven't objected) that the non-member may attend.Obviously someone would have to inform the non-member that they can attend (in my situation if the chair doesn't or can't inform them there is someone who can). The granting of consent by the board, whether it be by vote or by unanimous consent, can occur only at a meeting of the board. For a better understanding of what is meant by "unanamous consent", read what is said in RONR, 11th ed., on pages 54-56. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Edgar Guest Posted April 16, 2015 at 11:46 AM Report Share Posted April 16, 2015 at 11:46 AM Obviously someone would have to inform the non-member that they can attend (in my situation if the chair doesn't or can't inform them there is someone who can). if the guest hasn't previously been given permission to attend the meeting he'll have to wait outside until such permission is (or isn't) granted. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts
Archived
This topic is now archived and is closed to further replies.