Guest Phil Posted July 24, 2012 at 02:15 AM Report Share Posted July 24, 2012 at 02:15 AM when unanimous consent is required for passing a motion can member abstain from voting merely because they do not have strong opposition or favor for the motion, and if abstaining from a vote is allowed is it still considered to be a unanimous Vote? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
J. J. Posted July 24, 2012 at 02:32 AM Report Share Posted July 24, 2012 at 02:32 AM when unanimous consent is required for passing a motion can member abstain from voting merely because they do not have strong opposition or favor for the motion, and if abstaining from a vote is allowed is it still considered to be a unanimous Vote?It would not effect unanimous consent, which requires an objection (pp. 54-5, especially p. 55, ll. 5-8). Clearly, a vote where there is no member opposed to the motion, the vote is unanimous. The members may not be unanimous in their support. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Guest Posted July 24, 2012 at 02:43 AM Report Share Posted July 24, 2012 at 02:43 AM Thanks, i should have first asked if abstaining is allowed under the rules.one of our board members thinks that it is not allowed Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Rev Ed Posted July 24, 2012 at 03:26 AM Report Share Posted July 24, 2012 at 03:26 AM According to RONR, abstaining is allowed. However, it sounds like the organization has its own rules if a motion has to be approved through unanimous consent. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trina Posted July 24, 2012 at 11:56 AM Report Share Posted July 24, 2012 at 11:56 AM It would not effect unanimous consent, which requires an objection (pp. 54-5, especially p. 55, ll. 5-8).Clearly, a vote where there is no member opposed to the motion, the vote is unanimous. The members may not be unanimous in their support.In this case, the difference between effecting unanimous consent, and affecting [the word I think you meant to use] unanimous consent, is a pretty significant one. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trina Posted July 24, 2012 at 12:09 PM Report Share Posted July 24, 2012 at 12:09 PM According to RONR, abstaining is allowed. However, it sounds like the organization has its own rules if a motion has to be approved through unanimous consent.But, the term 'unanimous consent' has a specific meaning in RONR. Are you suggesting that if an organization uses that exact term in its bylaws the meaning changes? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Mike Posted July 24, 2012 at 01:38 PM Report Share Posted July 24, 2012 at 01:38 PM "According to RONR, abstaining is allowed. However, it sounds like the organization has its own rules if a motion has to be approved through unanimous consent."Would you provide the specific page(s) reference for the allowable circumstances for "abstaining." Thanks You. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Edgar Posted July 24, 2012 at 01:49 PM Report Share Posted July 24, 2012 at 01:49 PM Would you provide the specific page(s) reference for the allowable circumstances for "abstaining." Thanks You. See p. 407 for the "Right of Abstention". Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jstackpo Posted July 24, 2012 at 01:59 PM Report Share Posted July 24, 2012 at 01:59 PM And don't forget, if someone doesn't show up for the meeting at all, he/she is in effect "abstaining" on every single vote taken at the meeting. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest T Posted July 24, 2012 at 07:24 PM Report Share Posted July 24, 2012 at 07:24 PM Under this site FAQ #6, pretty much sums it up. To abstain is a refusal to vote..So, an abstention is not a vote and is not counted as a vote. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
David A Foulkes Posted July 24, 2012 at 08:05 PM Report Share Posted July 24, 2012 at 08:05 PM when unanimous consent is required for passing a motion....Sez who?.... unanimous consent .... unanimous Vote?These are two different concepts. Which is it? For unanimous consent, there would be no vote, and thus no abstaining. So we're left to assume you really mean "when a unanimous vote is required for passing a motion..." And so, where does this requirement come from? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Stevep Posted July 25, 2012 at 09:24 PM Report Share Posted July 25, 2012 at 09:24 PM Say a given motion needs 2/3 vote to pass and 8 of 11 members abstain, 3 members vote to pass. Would the motion pass? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jstackpo Posted July 25, 2012 at 09:42 PM Report Share Posted July 25, 2012 at 09:42 PM Pass? Yes.BTW - this b-board works best if you ask a new question in new topic, even though the subject may be very similar. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest KiKi Posted July 26, 2012 at 06:21 PM Report Share Posted July 26, 2012 at 06:21 PM I thought abstention is the same as a no vote? Am I wrong in this understanding? If I am wrong, then our assembly has been doing things wrong for awhile. (in the past an abstention is counted as a "no" vote).Only throwing this question in so I can get this clarified for future reference. Thanks Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Edgar Posted July 26, 2012 at 07:00 PM Report Share Posted July 26, 2012 at 07:00 PM I thought abstention is the same as a no vote? Am I wrong in this understanding?Yes, I'm afraid you're mistaken. See FAQ #6. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gary c Tesser Posted July 26, 2012 at 11:16 PM Report Share Posted July 26, 2012 at 11:16 PM We still labor under misapprehensions due to the legacy of President Reagan's wife's crusades. When she urged young Americans to "Just Say No" to drugs, sex, and restrictions on the Second Amendment, because her husband didn't get shot often enough in 1981, she really meant "abstain." Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tim Wynn Posted July 26, 2012 at 11:36 PM Report Share Posted July 26, 2012 at 11:36 PM We still labor under misapprehensions due to the legacy of President Reagan's wife's crusades. When she urged young Americans to "Just Say No" to drugs, sex, and restrictions on the Second Amendment, because her husband didn't get shot often enough in 1981, she really meant "abstain."No. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Shmuel Gerber Posted July 26, 2012 at 11:41 PM Report Share Posted July 26, 2012 at 11:41 PM It would not effect unanimous consent, which requires an objection (pp. 54-5, especially p. 55, ll. 5-8).In this case, the difference between effecting unanimous consent, and affecting [the word I think you meant to use] unanimous consent, is a pretty significant one.And you're picking on that word because the rest of the sentence makes perfect sense. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gary Novosielski Posted July 28, 2012 at 01:30 AM Report Share Posted July 28, 2012 at 01:30 AM Would you provide the specific page(s) reference for the allowable circumstances for "abstaining." Thanks You. If you haven't run across that information, it's because abstaining is allowable in all circumstances. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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