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52 minutes ago, Guest Abc123 said:

If a committee voted down a motion on a topic it has been empowered to decide,

can the board make the same motion and pass it,

essentially overruling the committee decision?  

If so, is it through a motion to reconsider or would a standard floor motion work?

In general:

A board may overrule any of its committees, when it comes to making a binding decision on behalf of the whole organization.

***

In general:

Whatever rule/policy is binding on the organization, that "status quo" must be amended or rescinded, to alter or abolish it.

Whatever rule/policy never took effect, that "status quo" is not in place, so no kind of "reconsideration" nor "rescission" is necessary. -- Just adopt a new motion.

***

If a committee voted down X, then, in general, a board, or the general membership, (a superior body) is free to take up X and adopt X.

A committee does not tie the hands of the organization, unless the superior body empowered the committee(s) to make binding decisions.

(E.g., a convention site is typically one kind of "choice" a board may empower its committee to sign contracts regarding, to spend money on, etc.)

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Guest Who's Coming to Dinner

I believe Mr. Huynh alludes to the possibility that this committee is under the authority of the society and not the board. In that case, does its rejection of the motion it was empowered to decide put the proposal beyond the reach of the board, in accordance with RONR (11th ed.), p. 577, ll. 23–28?

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3 hours ago, Hieu H. Huynh said:

Is this committee a committee of the board?

It is a committee of the board.

It seems clear that if the committee voted to recommend to approve x to the full board, the board could vote to not approve it. Here, however, the vote is to not approve x, thereby keeping the status quo. 

it seems to me that when the board is voting to approve the committee's report, a member could make a motion to amend the report to approve x. It may even be cleaner if there is a minority report submitted with respect to x, but I don't think it's necessary. 

The one complicating factor is that the board approved the committee's charter, making them responsible for decisions with regard to changes to x. 

Thanks you all so

much for your help!

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16 hours ago, Guest Abc123 said:

It is a committee of the board.

It seems clear that if the committee voted to recommend to approve x to the full board, the board could vote to not approve it. Here, however, the vote is to not approve x, thereby keeping the status quo. 

it seems to me that when the board is voting to approve the committee's report, a member could make a motion to amend the report to approve x. It may even be cleaner if there is a minority report submitted with respect to x, but I don't think it's necessary. 

The one complicating factor is that the board approved the committee's charter, making them responsible for decisions with regard to changes to x. 

Thanks you all so

much for your help!

There is a big difference between "empowered to decide" and "recommend to (dis)approve".

And you've used both terms, and it's not clear which one is the case.

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On 2/12/2017 at 6:25 PM, Guest Who's Coming to Dinner said:

I believe Mr. Huynh alludes to the possibility that this committee is under the authority of the society and not the board. In that case, does its rejection of the motion it was empowered to decide put the proposal beyond the reach of the board, in accordance with RONR (11th ed.), p. 577, ll. 23–28?

This question intrigues me, and I'm unsure of the answer. I'd guess yes, but I'd like a more specific citation to back me up (or shoot me down).  I hesitate to continue the discussion here, because it would conflate two distinct but possibly confusingly related issues in one discussion thread, and I've had quite enough of that for one month (I'll be wincing any time I hear or read the word "interim," maybe till July).

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On 2/16/2017 at 2:32 PM, Godelfan said:

No, I have no need to spy on my spouse.  Thank you though.

LOL!!!   (Only those of us who are truly regulars on this forum and were here at a particular time a couple of days ago will understand Godelfan's comment).   By way of explanation, I'll just say that a few inappropriate posts got slipped into the forum and were rather promptly deleted.  And the poster was presumably blocked.  But not before Godelfan responded. :)

Edited by Richard Brown
Added last couple of sentences.
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On 2/12/2017 at 6:25 PM, Guest Who's Coming to Dinner said:

I believe Mr. Huynh alludes to the possibility that this committee is under the authority of the society and not the board. In that case, does its rejection of the motion it was empowered to decide put the proposal beyond the reach of the board, in accordance with RONR (11th ed.), p. 577, ll. 23–28?

I hope the answer is, yes, mostly because "no" would be worse.

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3 hours ago, George Mervosh said:

I hope the answer is, yes, mostly because "no" would be worse.

Me too.  But you got a hands-down citation (or a rationale, which would be worse)?  -- 'Cause I don't see any.

N.B.  I would have preferred "apodictic," not just 'cause I haven't used the word enough this year but also by happenstance it's apropos, although calling the word the mot juste would be stretching a bit, but I said "hands-down" instead because it so tinkles George when I abjure from writing like a college graduate.

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